At the end
of my last post I suggested that the evidence on changing income redistribution
– in the OECDs recent publication ‘Divided We Stand’ - poses some serious
questions to those of us who are inclined to argue that governments can create
widespread opportunities by just getting out of the way. I stick by that, but I
don’t see much that is of particular concern in trends in income distribution
in OECD countries since the mid-1980s.
In his discussion of Wayne Swan’s recent ravings about income distribution, Henry
Ergas agreed with Swan that it is possible to avoid a rising gap between income
growth of those at the top of the income distribution and those at the bottom.
He noted, however, that ‘the four countries that from the mid-1980s on, most
conspicuously did so’ were ‘Portugal, Ireland, Greece and Spain, usually known
as the PIGS. In those countries, the bottom 10 percent’s incomes increased by
about 1.7 percent more a year than those of the 10 percent at the top’.
I had missed
this point when I first looked at the ‘Overview’ of ‘Divided We Stand’. When I looked
at the relevant table, it seemed like a good idea to graph the data. The result
is shown below.
The PIGS
certainly stand out for their success in achieving relatively high rates of
growth for those in the bottom 10% of the income distribution. As expected, the
growth in average incomes of those at the bottom of the income distribution in
the United States was substantially lower than for those at the top – but the
same is also true of Sweden. This presumably reflects substantial economic
reforms undertaken in Sweden since the mid-1980s.
The growth
in incomes for those in the lowest 10% of the income distribution in Australia looks fairly good by comparison with most other countries, and the income growth
that occurred is hopefully more likely to be sustained that for the PIGS.
The overall
picture shown in the graph suggests a fairly loose relationship between the
growth in incomes at the top and bottom of the income distribution. Is the
relationship any closer between growth in incomes at the top and in the middle
of the distribution?
The second
graph suggests that there has been a fairly close relationship between growth in
incomes at the top of the income distribution and those in the middle. Given
all the talk about rising income inequality in the United States, I was
surprised to see that the US does not stand out in terms of incomes at the top
rising much more rapidly than those in the middle. What is all the fuss about? Are
the researchers who view rising inequality in the US as something exceptional looking at more recent
trends? Or are they jumping at shadows?
Postscript:
After some further reading, I am inclined to answer my
questions as follows:
1. Most of the fuss has been about increases in
incomes of the top 1% in the US. The increase in share of the top 1% was
relatively large by comparison with most other OECD countries. See Figure 12 of
the ‘Overview’ of ‘Divided We Stand’.
2. Growth in incomes of the top 1% has been highly
volatile in the US. See Figure 2, of the Congressional Budget Office report: ‘Trendsin the Distribution of household Income Between 1979 and 2007’.
3. The issue is whether the increase in the incomes
of the top 1% is at the expense of the rest of the population. Various
explanations have been given for the rapid increase in incomes at the very top
of the distribution, but I don’t think a convincing case has been made that there has been systemic market
failure. With the benefit of hindsight some remuneration experiments could be
counted as failures, but it would be unreasonable to expect all market experiments to succeed. Failure of particular remuneration experiments doesn’t mean that the 99% would benefit from
regulation of the remuneration of the 1%, or from higher taxation of the income
of the 1%.